1.
Calculate the
Antenna power gain for a beamwidth of 10 degrees.
A. 20 dB C.
2.6 dB
B. 26 dB D.
2.0 dB
2.
Calculate the
minimum length of a pair of conductors to be considered a transmission line, if
its operating frequency is 800 MHz.
A.
37.5 mm C. 37.5 cm
B. 375 mm D.
3.75 cm
3.
What is the
purpose of the indirectly-heated cathode in a cathode ray tube?
A. beam modulation C. beam focusing
B. beam production D.
beam deflection
4.
The time transfer
accuracy used with reference to the Universal Transmitter Mercator Grid
is_____.
A. UTC C. GMT
B. UTMG D.
UTM
5.
A transmitter
operates at frequency 144 MHz. the transmitter is using (a) doubler, two
tripler and a quadrupler. Calculate its crystal oscillator frequency.
A. 2 KHz C.
2000 MHz (2000 KHZ)
B. 3000 KHz D.
3 KHz
6.
Brightness of an
image is known as _____.
A. Luminance C. Reflectance
B. Chrominance D.
Radiance
7.
The principle of
data reduction which says that when reducing a s….. of data into the form of an
underlying mode, one should be maximally non-committal with respect to missing
data.
A. Jaynes maximum entropy principle
B. Maximum
entropy principle
C. Kullback principle of minimum discrimination
D. Minimum discrimination principle
8.
In a satellite
system, Johannes Kepler stated that “the square of the periodic time of orbit
is proportional to the cube of the mean distance between the primary and the
satellites”. This is also known as _____.
A. Kepler’s
3rd Law C.
Kepler’s 2nd Law
B. Kepler’s 1st Law D.
Kepler’s Law of Areas
9.
Calculate the
time delay in nanosecond introduced by a 100 ft coaxial cable with a dielectric
constant of 2.3.
A. 230 C. 154
B. 152 D.
15.2
10.
The velocity of sound is a function of _____.
A. temperature and volume C. medium and
temperature
B. medium and volume D. medium and velocity
11.
The frequency
stability of cellular mobile telephone transmitter authorized by NTC for use in
the Philippines
is _____.
A. 3.0 KHz plus or minus 2.0 ppm
B. 2.5 KHz plus or
minus 2.5 ppm
C. 5.2 KHz plus or minus
2.5 ppm
D. 5.0 KHz plus or
minus 2.0 ppm
12.
What height must
a satellite be placed above the surface of the earth in order for its rotation
to be equal to the earth’s rotation?
A. 23,426.4 mi C. 22,426.4 mi
B. 27,426.4 mi D.
26,426.4 mi
13.
Determine the
wavelength of radio waves propagated using a frequency of 30 MHz.
A. 15 meters C.
30 meters
B. 10 meters D. 9
meters
14.
For vertical
scanning in a TV system, the field rate is _____ Hz.
A. 262 and 1/2 C.
60
B.
30 D.
525
15.
The actual data rate
for terrestrial digital TV transmission to allow for the addition of
synchronizing and error-correction bit is _____.
A. 32.28 Mbps C.
48 Mbps
B. 8 Mbps D.
64 Mbps
16.
According to the
NTC memorandum circular, a spectrum user fee of PhP10… per indoor radion
station used for Wireless Data Network shall be paid by the Public Telecom
Entity (PTE) with a data rate in excess of _____ Mbps.
A. 0.64 C.
4.8
B. 0.44 D. 11
17.
What are the
letter-number designations of carrier and one SB?
A. J3E C.
A3E
B. H3E D.
F3E
18.
What layer of the
Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model handles the transmission of bits over
a communications channel?
A. physical
layer C.
data link layer
B. transport layer D.
network layer
19.
Under R.A. 9292,
Electronics Technicians may apply for registration without examination within
_____ years, after the effectivity of the Republic Act.
A. 7 C.
12
B. 10 D. 5
20.
What is the
effective height of a broadcast antenna if the voltage induced in the antenna
is 2.7 volts and the measured field intensity received in the antenna site is
27 mV/m?
A. 29.7 meters C.
72.9 meters
B. 100 meters D. 127
meters
21.
The IEEE standard
used for high speed wireless Ethernet access known as Wi-Fi’s is _____.
A. 803.12 C.
802.116
B. 803.116 D. 801.11
22.
Medium-Earth
Orbit (MEO) satellite operates in the _____ frequency band.
A. 2-18 GHz C. 1.2 – 1.66 GHz
B. 1.0 – 2.5 GHz D.
6 – 12 GHz
23.
Known as the data
transfer scheme that used handshaking principle.
A. Synchronous data transfer scheme
B. Asynchronous data transfer scheme
C. DMA data transfer scheme
D. Uninterrupted data transfer scheme
24.
What is the delay
time for satellite transmissions from earth transmitter to earth receiver.
A. 5000 ms C.
500 ms
B. 50 ms D.
500 us
25.
The normal design
limitation of a telephone loop is its value of 1 resistance Rz, the maximum
value of Rloop must not exceed _____.
A. 5400 ohms C.
2300 ohms
B. 1300 ohms D. 2800 ohms
26.
A microwave
communications uses plane reflectors as passive repeaters. The diameter of the
parabolic antenna is 18 ft while the effective is 310 ft. Determine the
reflector coupling factor.
A. 0.76 C.
0.92
B. 0.906 D.
0.706
27.
Calculate the
approximate height of a GEO satellite using Kepler law (A = 42241.0979, P =
0.9972)
A. 34,416.40 Km C.
36,000 Km
B. 35,790 Km D. 421,164
Km
28.
In Satellite
Communications, satellites using frequencies between GHz uplink and 17-20 GHz
downlink are known to be operating in _____ band.
A. Ka C.
x
B. Ku D.
v
29.
Determine the
bandwidth efficiency of a 16 QAM modulator using input rate.
A. 4 Mbps C. 5 Mbps
B. 2 Mbps D.
3 Mbps
30.
Determine the
shot noise for a diode with a forward bias of 1…. A 110 KHz bandwidth. (q =
1.6x10 raised to minus 19 C)
A. 0.006 uArms C.
0.004 uArms
B. 0.005 uArms D. 0.007 uArms
31.
The relative
permittivity of silicon is _____.
A. 11.7 C.
1.18
B. 1.17 D. 11.8
32.
A third
generation Wireless technology known to deliver broadband data speed to mobile
communication device is _____.
A. EDGE C.
WiFi
B. Bluetooth D.
GPRS
33.
Which among the
IEEE standards, refers to the global specifications of Wireless LAN?
A. 802.3 C.
802.11x
B. 802.14 D.
802.11b
34.
In
telecommunications, short haul connection refers to a connection exceeding
_____ kilometers.
A. 200 C.
250
B.
150 D.
300
35.
A satellite
communication system uses SPADE. The digital modulation technique used in SPADE
is _____.
A. QPSK C.
8 QAM
B. 16 QAM D.
BPSK
36.
One of the
following is NOT a system specification for third generation wireless system.
A. TD/CDMA C.
CDMA 2000
B. WCDMA D. IMT 2000
37.
The meaning of
MP3 is _____.
A. Motion Picture Production, layer 3
B. Motion
Picture Experts Group 1, Audio Player 3
C. Music Production layer 3
D. Music Production level 3
38.
A receiver produces a noise power of 250 mW
with no signal. The output increases to 5W when the signal is applied.
Calculate the (S+N)/N power ration in dB.
A. 13 C. 13.22
B. 10 D.
20
39.
A non-coherent
light source for optical communications system.
A. ILD C.
LED
B. PIN Diode D.
APD
40.
One of the
following is NOT classified as a Customer Premises Equipment (CPE) by the NTC.
A. Automatic Teller
Machine
B. VSAT
C. Videophone Terminal Equipment
D. ISDN Terminal Equipment
41.
Bluetooth
Wireless Technology uses _____ technique to produce the spreading function of
spectrum signals.
A. Hybrid Direct-sequence C. hybrid-frequency hopping
B. direct sequence D. frequency hopping
42.
Calculate the
maximum theoretical data rate for one satellite transponder used for binary
data transmissions.
A. 36 Mbps C.
144 Mbps
B. 72 Mbps D.
64 Mbps
43.
The tunnel diode
_____.
A. has a tiny hole through its center to facilitate
tunneling
B. uses a high doping level to provide a narrow
junction
C. works by quantum tunneling exhibited by gallium
arsenide
D.
is joint-contact diode with high reverse resistance
44. What is the characteristic impedance of a basic
parallel-wire line, its diameter is 0.023 inches with spacing of 0.14 inches
apart, if it uses a dielectric material made of continuous polyvinyl chloride?
A.
238.7 ohms C. 234 ohms
B.
99 ohms D. 188 ohms (PVC = 3.4)(ans = 162.47)
http://www.asiinstr.com/technical/Dielectric%20Constants.htm
45. A transistor amplifier has a measured S/N power of
70 at its input 21 at its output. Determine the noise figure of the transistor.
A. 5.1 dB C.
52 dB
B. 51.2 dB D. 5.2 dB
46. Crosstalk in telephony, refers to the unwanted
coupling between signal paths and contribute to noise in the telephone
receiver. Calculate crosstalk coupling loss in dBx (one unit of crosstalk in dB
above reference coupling) if the crosstalk coupling is 20 dBx.
A. 60 C.
80
B. 70 D.
90
47. The critical maximum
value of the external incident angle for which light will propagate in the
fiber is known as __________.
A.
acceptance angle
B. critical
angle
C.
internal incident
angle
D.
critical internal
incident angle
48. For an 8 PSK modulation with an input data rate
equal to 10 MHz, carrier frequency of 70 MHz, determine the bit rate in the
hi-ph channel.
A. 5 Mbps C. 3.33 Mbps
B. 20 Mbps D.
10 Mbps
49. In data communications,
network, coaxial cable “RG 11” used for type of application?
A.
IBM 3270 computer
terminals
B.
Thick Ethernet
C.
Cable TV Systems
D.
Thin Ethernet
50. Calculate the peak envelope power of a single
sideband (SSB) transmitter that produces a peak-to-peak voltage of 240 volts
across a 100 ohms antenna load.
A. 144 W C. 72 W
B. 120 W D.
24 W
51. A digital transmission has an error of probability
of 10 raised to minus 5 power, and is 1000 million bits long. Calculate the
exp… error rate (BER).
A.
500 C.
100,000
B.
5 billion D.
10,000
52. The best terrain between
antennas is _____, which will prevent re.. effects on the hop.
A.
rocky C.
forested
B.
plain and flat D.
water surface
53. Best description of a
collinear and broadside antenna radiation
A.
Bidirectional C.
Perfect Circle
B. Omnidirectional D.
Unidirectional
54. The Rules and Regulation governing CATV systems in
the Philippines
defines the specified zone of a TV broadcast station to be the area extending
______ km from reference point in the community to which the station is
licensed or authorized.
A. 56 km C.
72 km
B. 75 km D. 60 km
55. What is the carrier
frequency of an FM station with a channel number 300?
A. 101.1 MHz C. 107.9 MHz
B. 107.5 MHz D.
99.5 MHz
56. The velocity of sound in dry air medium is 331.45
m/s. Calculate the velocity if there is an increase of temperature equal to 10
degrees Centigrade.
A. 341.52 m/s C.
332.52 m/s
B. 337.52 m/s D.
332 m/s
57. The input current in a matched transmission line
is 50 mA while the current is 2 mA. The line is 1 mile long. Calculate the
attenuation coefficient in dB per meters.
A. 0.01738 C.
0.00279
B. 0.002 D.
27.96
58. Determine the maximum quantization error for an
8-bit linear sign-magnitude PCM code for a maximum decoded voltage of 1.27 Vp.
A. 0.05 V C. 0.005 V
B. 0.001 V D.
0.01 V
59. One of the following
statements is false, regarding making the.. (IL?) very high.
A.
the image
rejection will be very good.
B.
There is no need
to make the local oscillator extremely stable.
C.
Tracking will be
greatly improved.
D.
The selectivity
will be poor.
60. Another name used for
optical density is ______.
A. light density C.
light flux
B. flux density D. radiant flux
61. The hue 180 degrees out
of phase with red is _______.
A. cyan C.
blue
B. green D.
yellow
62. The composite video
signal of TV is composed of the following s…
A.
camera signal
with blanking pulses
B.
camera signal
with blanking and sync
C.
blanking signal,
horizontal and vertical synchronizing signal
D.
camera signal,
horizontal and vertical synchronizing signal
63. In analog CMTS (AMPS),
the narrowband control channel using 395 voice channels is channel ________.
A. 12 C.
25
B. 30 D. 21
64. A frequency modulation system requires a
signal-to-noise ratio at the detector output. The modulating frequency is 2 kHz
and deviation is 50 kHz. Determine the required minimum S/N at the input.
A. 120 dB C.
80 dB
B. 25 dB D.
83.3 dB
65. Which of the following is
contained in a fiber optic transmitter?
A.
an output circuit
B.
light detector
C.
fiber-to-detector
connector
D. light source
66. In a PLL frequency
demodulator, this information or the modulating signal is the _____ signal.
A. phase-shift C. VCO
B. error D.
input
67. A satellite earth station designed to receive
satellite signals. Such stations may be used to receive data, such as stock
market prices or new-wire service or television programs.
A.
transmit-receive
earth station
B.
receive only
earth station
C.
receive-only
satellite earth station
D.
transmit-only
earth station
68. A typical separation distance between satellites
in a geostational orbit is 183.3 miles. In terms of degrees, it is equivalent
to ______ degrees.
A. 7 C. 4
B. 6 D.
5
69. What is the cut-off
frequency of a rectangular waveguide that has width of 0.6 m and a height of
0.36 m?
A. 0.9845 GHz C.
9.8425 MHz
B. 9842.5 KHz D.
9842.5 MHz
70. For an earth station transmitter with an output
power of 10 kW, a back-off loss of 3 dB, a total branching and feeder loss of 4
dB, transmit antenna gain of 40 dB, determine the EIRP.
A.
73 dBW C. 44 dBW
B. 37 dBW D.
70 dBW
71. At 0 degree elevation, a
geostationary satellite can cover a maximum of
______ percent of the earth’s surface.
A. 66 C.
46
B. 42.5 D.
33.33
72. What is the common
up-converter and down-converter IF?
A. 36 MHz C.
70 MHz
B. 40 MHz D.
500 MHz
73. Luminance signals are adjusted to match the brightness
sensation of human vision for color television. Thus is _______.
A.
29% red, 59%
green, and 12% blue
B. 30% red, 59%
green, and 11% blue
C.
29% red, 60%
green, and 11% blue
D.
30% red, 58%
green, and 12% blue
74. The National Telecommunications Commission (NTC),
requires manual installation of Navigational Satellite Aids Equipment,
particularly, NAVTEX receiver and EPIRB equipment to passenger and General C…
Vessels engaged in coastwise trade with a gross tonnage of _______.
A. 120 C.
150
B. 80 D.
100
87. In a spread-spectrum frequency hopping system, a
________ circuit selects frequency modulated by the synthesizer.
A. frequency synthesizer C. PSN code generator
B. FSK oscillator D.
frequency shifter
88. Which is the most
positive element in the electron guin of TV receivers?
A. screen grid C.
1st anode
B. 2nd anode D.
control grid
89. A signal which varies
between three levels.
A. Alternate mark inversion C. Bipolar code
B. RZ D.
NRZ
90. An object nearer to a converging
lens than its focal point always a/an _______ image.
A. the same size C.
virtual
B.
inverted D.
smaller
91. The radio transceiver in
the SRRS in the Philippines
has a maximum transmitted output power of _________.
A. 4 W C.
3 W
B. 5 W D.
6 W
92. What synchronizes the
horizontal line of the TV picture tube?
A. HSC C.
HFC
B. HAFC D.
HAC
93. The ratio of the separation distance between two
co-channel cell, the cell radius is known as co-channel _________.
A.
reduction interference
ratio
B.
interference
ratio
C. interference
reduction factor
D.
reduction ratio
94. What causes a herringbone
pattern in facsimile?
A.
noise
B.
crosstalk
C.
phase jitter
D.
single-frequency
interference
95. A rectangular waveguide has the following cross
sectional dimension width is 0.8 in., while the height is 0.6 in., as fed by a
coaxial at 12 GHz frequency. Calculate the cut-off wavelength.
A. 3.05 cm C.
1.44 cm
B. 4.06 cm D.
5.08 cm
96. In FDM, how many voice
band channels are there in a jumbo group?
A. 7200 C.
10,800
B. 3600 D.
1000
97. Using NTSC standard, what
is the aural carrier frequency of UHF TV channel 28?
A. 558.75 MHz C.
553.75 MHz
B. 559.75 MHz D. 555.25 MHz
98. A parametric amplifier
must be cooled _______.
A.
to provide better
amplification
B.
to be operational
because it cannot operate at room temperature
C. to improve
the noise performance
D.
to increase the
bandwidth
99. Which of the following
frequencies is wrong?
A.
60 Hz for
vertical sync and scanning
B.
15,750 Hz for
horizontal sync scanning
C.
31,500 Hz for
equalizing pulses and serrations in the vertical sync pulse
D.
31,000 Hz for the
vertical scanning frequency
100. An optic fiber is made of glass with a refractive
index of 1.54, and clad with another glass with refractive index of 1.50.
Launching takes place from air. Calculate the numerical aperture of the fiber.
A. 0.352 C.
0.0352
B. 0.00352 D.
3.52
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sir panu po isolve yung number 26?
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